Theoretical question

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Theoretical question

New postby cannon pinion » Wed May 25, 2016 3:39 am

I would think that if one used a stopwatch known to be accurate to time the second hand in a watch movement, you would get an good check of the accuracy of said movement.
I have observed that this is not in fact the case.
I think the reasons it doesnt work are: doesnt allow for cumulative error from intermittent faults in escapement and elsewhere. Doesnt allow for faults in dial side gears - hour wheel, cannon pinion and the intermediate wheel. Doesnt allow for positional problems.
Are there other reasons? I've seen numerous posts on other boards where people use this technique. I used to rely on it myself, but now I think it's unreliable.
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Re: Theoretical question

New postby brownsrplm » Wed May 25, 2016 11:20 am

Andy,
I would say it also depends on the quality of the movement itself. A very high grade may actually be accurate enough...
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Re: Theoretical question

New postby Harvey Mintz » Wed May 25, 2016 2:38 pm

The stop watch also doesn't allow for the reaction time of the user, which will adversely affect any measurement.
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Re: Theoretical question

New postby Neilywatch » Thu May 26, 2016 1:33 am

Even with an accurate stopwatch - like Harvey said. IF your reaction time is 1/20 of a seconds slow - it translates to about 2 minutes per day.
Believe it or not a better tool to time watches is a stroboscope - try it!
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